EA 190 Shakespeare & Japan: Week 2 Outline Websites and links Blackadder "Don't Mention Macbeth" http://shakespeare-online.com/ "Tomorrow, and tomorrow, and tomorrow" analysis and performance by Ian McKellen "Tomorrow, and tomorrow, and tomorrow" performance by Patrick Stewart I. Poetic language in Macbeth (make sure you read "Reading Shakespeare's Language: Macbeth" p. xv-xxiv) A. A major innovation of Shakespeare was the idea that character can be evoked through style of speech. Previously, dramatists such as Christopher Marlow clearly marked upper-class characters by their use of verse (usually iambic pentameter) versus lower-class characters who used prose. Shakespeare gives characters verse, blank verse or prose to speak, without regard to class status. 1. Some useful definitions of prose, verse and blank verse and how to recognize them. Click here for another link that specifically analyzes these forms in Macbeth. 2. Who speaks verse in Macbeth? Who speaks blank verse? Prose? B. Major forms of rhetorical language in Macbeth (besides metaphor/ simile/ metonymy) 1. Apostrophe: speaking to an object (or an idea) as though it were sentient/animated ("Ode to a Nightingale") 2. Personification: endowing an object or idea with human characteristics ("Mother Earth is being raped by stripmining.") 3. Puns: these play a lesser role in Macbeth but occur at key moments ("gild/guilt") 4. Alliteration/ Assonance: "cabined, cribbed, confined"; "creeps its petty pace," The first two techniques in particular create a very intense “poetification” of Macbeth’s use of language. Macbeth's speech is marked by an extraordinary poetic imagination -- it is one reason we feel sympathy for him even as he descends into evil. Examples of rhetorical language in Macbeth QUESTIONS 1. Choose one of the speeches by Macbeth or Lady Macbeth listed below. Use the sign-up sheet for week 2 to let me know by Tuesday April 7th at 5 pm. which speech you have chosen, so I can set up the class. 2. Describe the context of the speech. What is the situation in which Macbeth or Lady Macbeth makes this speech? What is the point of the speech: Is the character commenting on his or her state of mind? Urging action? Making a more general comment? 3. "Translate" the lines into modern English as best you can (you may use the internet or other sources to help you figure out what the lines mean, but do not simply quote the "translation" verbatim and make sure you cite your sources). What is lost when you rephrase and reorder the lines into modern English? 4. What are the main images or metaphors employed? How do these images help develop our understanding of the character or help develop a theme seen elsewhere in the play? Suggestion: watch your lines in performance on the DVD to see how the actor/s indicate meaning. Feel free to look for other versions of the play on Youtube to see if the actor appears to understand the lines differently. If you send me the Youtube URL I can show those in class.
LINES (Peter?) 1) Act 1, Scene 3, Lines 140-1: book p. 23, video 9:40 Son, Madelyn
2) Act 1 Scene 5, Lines 45-60: book p. 33, video 16:45 Isabel, Ariel, Jennifer
3) Act 1, Scene 7, Lines 1-16: book p. 39, video 20:07 Natalie, Tiffany, Julia
4) Act 2, Scene 2, Lines 45-57: book p. 57, video 34:45 Mana, Jonathan, Stephanie
5) Act 5, Scene 3, lines 23-33: book p. 169, video second half, 33:00 Juliana, Storm
6) Act 5, Scene 3, Lines 45-58: book p. 171, video second half 35:50 Claire,
II. Usurpation-Regicide/Legitimation A. THE QUESTION HERE is whether Shakespeare's portrayal of Macbeth and Banquo is simply propaganda for James I. 1. How is Banquo portrayed versus the historical Banquo? Does his son inherit the throne within the play? Does this support Stewart legitimacy? 2. How is Malcolm portrayed? What is the effect of listing all his vices? (Act 4, Sc 3, 61-132) What is the function of having the English support Malcolm to take back his rightful throne? 3. How is Macbeth's death at the end problematic for the Divine Right of Kings as promoted by James I, even if Macbeth is portrayed as a tyrant? According to James I (The Trew [True] Law of Free Monarchies): The king is "the head of a body composed of diverse members..." and so "it may very well fall out that the head will be forced to garre cut off some rotten members...to keep the rest of the body in integrity, but what state the body can be in, if the head, for any infirmity that can fall to it, be cut off, I leave to the reader's judgment." Given the quotation above, how might James I have responded to Macbeth's bloody head at the end of the play? In fact, from the point of view of later history, what happens to James I's son Charles I? 4. Historically James I traced his line back Banquo (the supposed ancestor of the Stuart/Stewart House which originates six generations later), so look for places in the play where the legitimacy of Banquo and his decendants is foregrounded. List the page numbers and line #s so we can discuss them in class plus a brief explanation of why these lines are pertinent. You can also use <Act X, Scene Y, Lines xx-zz> to specify lines.III. Equivocation and the Reformation A. Equivocation: Language and images related to equivocation, deception, and doubleness appear throughout the play: saying one thing but meaning another, hiding your true feelings, telling a smaller truth that hides a larger untruth, or telling a small lie that hides a larger truth. Please read the contextual overview for a brief explanation of the historical reasons for why equivocation was an important issue at the time: it was related to the suppression of Catholicism by Henry VIII, and the persecution of "recusant" (hidden) Catholics by James I in the aftermath of the Gunpowder Plot of November 5, 1605. Gunpowder Plot November 5, 1605 ("remember, remember the fifth of November") was a "terrorist" plot in which a group of Catholics hid 36 barrels of gunpowder packed with nails in the basement of a building adjacent to the House of Parliament, with the intent of blowing it up along with the King (who was supposed to visit Parliament that day). Equivocation as a technical term (AKA the Doctrine of Mental Reservation) allowed the speaker to employ double meanings of words to tell the literal truth while concealing a deeper meaning. It was used by Jesuits faced with government suppression, speaking a partial truth to the interrogators while reserving the full truth mentally for only God to hear. For example, from the Biography of Jesuit John Gerard (1597) on his interrogation in court about equivocating when asked whether he was a Catholic or not: "I maintained that equivocation was different from lying. In equivocation the intention was not to deceive, which was the essence of a lie, but simply to withhold the truth in cases where the questioned party is not bound to reveal it." Henry Garnet (1555-1606) was a Jesuit priest who scholars now believe may not have been involved in the Gunpowder Plot itself, but probably knew about it through hearing confession of at least one of those involved. He was caught in the aftermath of the failed plot and probably tortured to get a confession, then executed. He had written an essay in 1598 entitled A Treatise against Lying and Fraudulent Dissimulation or A Treatise of Equivocation which was found in the possession of one of the conspirators; this pamphlet was used to prove his guilt at trial. a. Why would Catholics who were suppressed/oppressed in England at this time, advocate equivocation? Why would equivocation be seen as problematic by the government? b. Look for places in the play where equivocation/doubleness appears to occur (hint: the Weird Sisters), or where deception is used to cover true intent (hint: by Macbeth and Lady Macbeth). Is equivocation and deception clearly distinguished in Macbeth? Who is equivocation most strongly associated with in the play? Who is deception most strongly associated with? List the page numbers/line #s with a brief note on how the equivocation functions at that moment in the play, so we can discuss them in class. Death of Macbeth (Patrick Stewart) https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=z_-w5vlK8H8 IV. Witchcraft and the Reformation A. James I was an ardent believer in witches; he had several "witches" tortured and put to death who had supposedly participated in fomenting a rebellion against him in Scotland (reported in News from Scotland 1591 pp. 313-325, see also this shorter excerpt) and he wrote an essay (Daemonology, 1597 pp. 325-328) arguing that the power of witches came from their contract with the devil. In Macbeth, a number of the details of how witches act came from these two texts, which introduced new ideas about witches from Europe, such as using sieves as boats, or having the power to cause tempests. B. For James I, witchcraft theory merges with the Divine Right of Kings theory, so that witchcraft becomes a form of treason: "The true aim of witches is to assault the body of the king." So in this period, "the discourse of witchcraft intersected with many other controversial issues of the time, from the place of women and the nature of supernatural power, to treason and regicide." (William Carroll, ed. Macbeth: Texts and Contexts p. 306). V. FORUM QUESTION: Does Macbeth have a choice or is he fated? A. Two issues to consider: 1. A basic concept of tragedy first stated by Heraclitus: Ethos Anthropos Daimon "A man’s character is his fate/destiny". From internet (lost the place!!): "Heraklitos thought that character, the essence of the individual, determines his or her experience; Character, the tone of the individual, resonates with the music of his destiny. It is the flaws of character that are tragic. Viewing destiny in this way, the fates are not outside us, in the heavens, weaving and cutting the threads of our lives. Instead, they are consonant with our character. This consideration is at the root of the world view that good things happen to good people." If we believe this conventional concept that the tragic events that unfold are caused by flaws in the main character what is Macbeth's tragic flaw? 2. Witchcraft and Prophecy a. Basic assumption in Shakespeare's time: True prophecy is only possible for God. So three possibilities: 1) generated by the devil to tempt people into evil b. Mistrusted by government because of association of prophecy with political rebellion; but note the following prophecy that was produced specifically for James 1 (click here). c. But how is prophecy different in "real life" than in drama? Can prophecy ever fail in drama? Does it fail in Macbeth? B. To what extent do the Weird Sister's prophecies determine Macbeth's fate? Do the prophecies a) mirror his already murderous thoughts b) anticipate/predict his murderous thoughts or c) determine (fate) his murderous thoughts? b. Why do you think he decides to act on their prophecies? At what point does he make his decision? (Give scene-lines to support your position.) Is there any indication that he might be possessed? c. What about Lady Macbeth? What is her relation to the Weird Sisters? What imagery in her speech seems to link them together?
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